.
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E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory. Answer: BC
39. What are three basic parameters to configure on a wireless access point? (Choose three.) A. SSID B. RTS/CTS C. AES-CCMP D. TKIP/MIC E. RF channel
F. authentication method Answer: AEF
40. Refer to the exhibit. A system administrator installed a new switch using a script to configure it. IP
connectivity was tested using pings to SwitchB. Later attempts to access NewSwitch using Telnet from
SwitchA failed. Which statement is true? A. Executing password recovery is required. B. The virtual terminal lines are misconfigured.
C. Use Telnet to connect to RouterA and then to NewSwitch to correct the error. .
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D. Power cycle of NewSwitch will return it to a default configuration. Answer: C
41. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. Answer: BE
42. Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.) A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends. Answer: ACE
43. Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these
show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.) .
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A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root Answer: ABF
44. Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on
SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is
detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested
it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show
commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.) .
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A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation. D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command. F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active. Answer: BD
45. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
.
| English | Chinese(Traditional) | Chinese(Simplified) | - 25 - . Information Co., Ltd. All rights reserved. Answer: AD
46. For which type of connection should a straight-through cable be used? A. switch to switch B. switch to hub C. switch to router D. hub to hub E. router to PC Answer: C
47. Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1 C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1 Answer: C
48. By default, each port in a Cisco Catalyst switch is assigned to VLAN1. Which two recommendations
are key to avoid unauthorized management access? (Choose two.) A. Create an additional ACL to block the access to VLAN 1.
B. Move the management VLAN to something other than default. C. Move all ports to another VLAN and deactivate the default VLAN. D. Limit the access in the switch using port security configuration. E. Use static VLAN in trunks and access ports to restrict connections. F. Shutdown all unused ports in the Catalyst switch. Answer: BF .
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49. Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
A. BackboneFast B. UplinkFast C. Root Guard D. BPDU Guard E. BPDU Filter Answer: D
50. Which type of cable is used to connect the COM port of a host to the COM port of a router or
switch? A. crossover
B. straight-through C. rolled
D. shielded twisted-pair Answer: C
51. What is known as \A. global unicast B. anycast C. multicast
D. unspecified address Answer: B
52. Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1 Answer: D .
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53. How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address? A. 24 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
Answer: D
54. Which layer of the OSI reference model uses the hardware address of a device to ensure message
delivery to the proper host on a LAN? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport Answer: B
55. Which layer of the OSI reference model uses flow control, sequencing, and acknowledgements to
ensure that reliable networking occurs? A. data link B. network C. transport D. presentation E. physical Answer: C
56. What is the principle reason to use a private IP address on an internal network? A. Subnet strategy for private companies.
B. Manage and scale the growth of the internal network.
C. Conserve public IP addresses so that we do not run out of them. D. Allow access reserved to the devices. .
| English | Chinese(Traditional) | Chinese(Simplified) | - 28 - . Information Co., Ltd. All rights reserved. Answer: C
57. Which IP address can be assigned to an Internet interface? A. 10.180.48.224 B. 9.255.255.10 C. 192.168.20.223 D. 172.16.200.18 Answer: B
58. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone. B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address. D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range. Answer: A
59. When is it necessary to use a public IP address on a routing interface? A. Connect a router on a local network. B. Connect a router to another router.
C. Allow distribution of routes between networks. D. Translate a private IP address. E. Connect a network to the Internet. Answer: E
60. What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called? A. NIC B. BIA C. OUI D. VAI .
| English | Chinese(Traditional) | Chinese(Simplified) | - 29 - . Information Co., Ltd. All rights reserved. Answer: C
61. In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.) A. when they receive a special token B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access